Okay, so I turned my water heating off on Friday night for some reason, after it had heated my cylinder. Today, the water was lukewarm and I fired up the boiler. It used 0.889cu m of gas, or 9.8kWh to heat the cylinder.
Bouncing idea about, if we say a conservative estimate of double the heat required, we would expect to see a proportional increse in gas used. Doubling the heat requirement has resulted in only 30% extra gas consumption.
Would it therefore seem reasonable to say that, in all likelihood, the inefficiency is quite possibly that the system requires a certain amount of heat to heat the primaries and cast iron heat exchanger?
This theory could be tested by testing the gas required to heat hot water, when the boiler is already hot from having been used for heating, if winter ever comes, that is!
Bouncing idea about, if we say a conservative estimate of double the heat required, we would expect to see a proportional increse in gas used. Doubling the heat requirement has resulted in only 30% extra gas consumption.
Would it therefore seem reasonable to say that, in all likelihood, the inefficiency is quite possibly that the system requires a certain amount of heat to heat the primaries and cast iron heat exchanger?
This theory could be tested by testing the gas required to heat hot water, when the boiler is already hot from having been used for heating, if winter ever comes, that is!